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討論串[分析] Global implicit function theorem
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There is no need to use TeX's markup here. Plain ASCII suffices.. Yes in a neighbourhood of x=x_0.. Globally, no, for example, f(x,y)=tanh(y)+x, x_0=y
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Suppose that $f=f(x,y)$ is $C^1$ in $x$ and $y$,. where $x,y\in\mathbb{R}$ and $f(x_0,y_0)=0$.. Moreover, $\frac{\partial f(x,y)}{\partial y}>0$ for a
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