[微分] rolle's theorem
想請問一下如果已經知道
f(x) 跟 f'(x) 皆可微且連微
但根據題目的條件知道
f'(x) 存在一數 k 使得 f'(k) = 0
那可以反推回去 f(x) 存在 c1 c2
使得 f(c1) = f(c2) 嗎?
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05/29 01:14, , 1F
05/29 01:14, 1F
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05/30 00:01, , 2F
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05/31 20:51, 5F