[幾何] homotopy
Let S^n be the n-sphere and let f:S^n→S^n be a mapping such that
f(x)≠-f(-x) for each x\in S^n. Then a mapping F:S^n ×[0,1]→S^n is well
defined by
tf(x)+(1-t)f(-x)
F(x,t)=----------------------
∥tf(x)+(1-t)f(-x)∥ .
We can see from the above that f(x) is homotopic to f(-x).
Now, I want to ask you a question. Is f(-x) homotopic to F(x,1/2)?
The answer is yes, but why is that? Is it possible to apply the definition
to determine whether f(-x) and F(x,1/2) are homotopic? I mean, can we
construct a homotopy between f(-x) and F(x,1/2)?
--
※ 發信站: 批踢踢實業坊(ptt.cc), 來自: 140.112.233.124
※ 文章網址: https://www.ptt.cc/bbs/Math/M.1555336530.A.37B.html
→
04/15 22:22,
6年前
, 1F
04/15 22:22, 1F
Did you mean
sf(x)+(1/2-s)f(-x)
F(x,2s)=------------------------ ??
∥sf(x)+(1/2-s)f(-x)∥
Sorry, I don't see any difference. What I'm going to do is to find a homotopy
between f(-x) and the mapping
[f(x)+f(-x)]/2
------------------
∥[f(x)+f(-x)]/2∥ .
→
04/15 23:47,
6年前
, 2F
04/15 23:47, 2F
Sorry, I missed a minus sign. After correcting the sign error, we know the
denominator is never zero for any x and any t. The mapping is well-defined.
→
04/16 03:05,
6年前
, 3F
04/16 03:05, 3F
Thx.
※ 編輯: rtyxn (140.112.233.124), 04/16/2019 07:40:19
推
04/16 11:46,
6年前
, 4F
04/16 11:46, 4F
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Thank you!
※ 編輯: rtyxn (140.112.233.124), 04/16/2019 14:16:35
推
04/16 17:13,
6年前
, 5F
04/16 17:13, 5F